CCNP 350-801 Dumps & Cisco Collaboration Exam Questions for 2026

Get exam-ready with the latest CCNP 350-801 CLCOR dumps and real-world practice questions designed to help you clear the Cisco Collaboration Core exam in 2026. This updated resource includes scenario-based CCNP collaboration exam questions, detailed explanations, and a practical test format that mirrors the actual Cisco certification exam. Topics covered include infrastructure, protocols, codecs, call control, QoS, and more. Whether you are upgrading your skills or aiming for CCNP Collaboration certification, these 350-801 dumps and sample questions ensure a solid understanding of Cisco Unified Communication technologies. Accelerate your preparation and boost your exam confidence with high-quality, verified CCNP 350-801 study materials.

CCNP 350-801 Dumps & Cisco Collaboration Exam Questions List :

1. How many high-definition 1080p conference ports does the Cisco TelePresence MSE 8000 chassis support?

1. 480

2. 180

3. 120

4. 240

2. Which PHB is indicated by the DSCP value of 46 (101110)?

1. AF PHB

2. selector PHB

3. EF PHB

4. default PHB

3. For inbound fast start no MTP is required?

1. false

2. true

4. How many subrules can a voice translation rule have?

1. 15

2. 10

3. 1

4. 5

5. 8

5. What are the two configuration options when configuring class-based traffic shaping? (Choose two.)

1. shape peak

2. single- or dual-rate traffic shaping

3. single or dual token bucket

4. single or multiaction traffic shaping

5. shape average

6. Which statement about the local route group feature is correct?

1. The local route group applies to all calls that match route patterns and translation patterns.

2. It provides the ability to configure a separate line and device CSS resulting in simpler dial plan configuration.

3. In Cisco Unified CM route list configuration, you can only select one local route group.

4. One local route group exists by default but you can add more local route groups to Cisco Unified CM.

7. Where does the classification of packets should occur?

1. as close to the source of the traffic as possible

2. anywhere in the core of the network

3. as close to the destination of the traffic as possible

4. at the distribution layer

8. How many participants can join an ad-hoc or meet-me conference by default?

1. 5

2. 15

3. 10

4. 16

5. 4

9. Which two features do not relate to call coverage? (Choose two.)

1. shared lines

2. Call Pickup

3. autoregistration

4. Call Admission Control

5. Call Forward

10. Which three options are supported Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment models? (Choose three.)

1. multiple sites, each with its own call-processing agent

2. two load-balancing clusters

3. a single cluster with distributed call processing

4. multiple sites with centralized call processing

5. a single site with one call-processing agent

6. two or more clusters with a bidirectional trust relationship

11. What are the two least expensive solutions for reducing delay on a link? (Choose two.)

1. Incorporate advanced queuing technologies.

2. Reduce link MTU size.

3. Increase the bandwidth of the link.

4. Drop low-priority packets early.

5. Compress the data and headers.

12. What is the layer 2 overhead for Ethernet?

1. 14+4 bytes

2. 6 bytes

3. 4 bytes

4. 6-9 bytes

13. What is the Layer 3 marking for a voice call?

1. BE

2. AF

3. Prio

4. EF

14. By default all directory numbers and route patterns are in the None partition?

1. true

2. false

15. Which two statements regarding TCP and RTP header compression are correct? (Choose two.)

1. Hardware-assisted header compression is required to reduce the header compression delay.

2. RTP header compression compresses the IP, UDP, and RTP headers.

3. TCP header compression compresses both the IP and TCP headers.

4. TCP and RTP header compression can compress the respective protocol headers down to 10 bytes.

   
   

   

16. How many concurrent conference bridges can Cisco TelePresence Conductor support?

1. 40

2. 30

3. 1

4. 15

 17. What is the method to support E.164 number mapping to DNS?

1. ENUM

2. Flow-through

3. DNS

4. ELM

18. Which component of Cisco Unified Communications Manager controls media resources that are registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

1. Media Resource Group List

2. Media Resource Manager

3. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application Service

4. Media Resource Group

19. Which two statements about TON are true? (Choose two.)

1. ISDN Q.921 supports TON for the called and calling party numbers

2. Cisco Unified CM can manipulate the calling party number based on its TON

3. TON is a commonly used DTMF relay method

4. SIP supports TON only for the calling party number

5. SIP does not support TON

20. What SIP port is used to connect Cisco Unified Communications Manager with Cisco TelePresence Server?

1. 2000

2. 2427

3. 5060

4. 5070

21. Which statement about the annunciator media resource is false?

1. The annunciator streams spoken messages to inform callers about the call progress.

2. The announcements support localization and may be customized by replacing the appropriate .wav file.

3. The annunciator is available only as a software media resource.

4. The annunciator is capable of supporting G.729 and wideband codecs when a transcoder is available.

22. How can a user shorten the T302 timer when calling a number located in a country with a variable length numbering plan?

1. Pressing at the end of the number

2. Pressing # at the end of the number

3. Pressing + at the end of the number

4. That is not possible, the T302 timer has always preference

23. Where in Cisco Unified Communications Manager can you find quickly a dial plan overview?

1. Call Routing > Dial Plan Report

2. System > General Overview

3. Call Routing > Route Plan Report

4. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability

24. Cisco Unified Communications Manager can be installed directly (bare-metal installation) on Cisco Unified Computing System B-series servers.

1. false

2. true

25. To use a class map, QoS must be referenced by using which of these options?

1. a route map

2. a service map

3. a policy map

4. an access list

26. When configuring a CSS on the device and on the line, which one takes preference?

1. Both

2. None

3. Device

4. Line

27. Which two statements are true, based on the following show output? (Choose two.)

1. wg6r1#show policy-map interface s0/1

2. IP payload compression is enabled for the VoIP traffic class.

3. LLQ is enabled for the VoIP traffic class.

4. Class-based RTP header compression is enabled for all RTP traffic.

5. Both class-based TCP and RTP header compression are enabled for the VoIP traffic class.

28. Each feature blade of a Cisco TelePresence MSE 8000 has its own user interface.

1. false

2. true

29. In which two forms is Cisco TelePresence Conductor available? (Choose two.)

1. cloud solution

2. appliance

3. service blade for Cisco TelePresence MSE 8000

4. virtual application

5. network module in Cisco ISR G2

30. Which option load-shares across its members?

1. Media Resource Route Lists

2. Media Resource Groups

3. Media Resource Pools

4. Media Resource Group Lists

31. Which AF class and which drop probability are indicated by the DSCP value of 100100?

1. AF1 and high

2. AF1 and medium

3. AF4 and medium

4. AF4 and high

32. Which consideration does not apply to codec selection?

1. bandwidth

2. quality

3. network latency and reliability

4. DTMF support

33. What is the maximum number of Cisco Unified Communications Manager nodes in a cluster, and how many servers can act as call-processing nodes?

1. 20 nodes, 8 of them used for call processing

2. 18 nodes, 6 of them used for call processing

3. 20 nodes, 6 of them used for call processing

4. 18 nodes, 8 of them used for call processing

34. Which mathematical model is used by traffic policing mechanisms to meter traffic?

1. predictor or stacker

2. FIFO metering

3. RED

4. token bucket

35. Which service has to be activated on Cisco Unified Communications Manager to enable the MTP?

1. Cisco CallManager Service

2. IP Voice Media Streaming Application Service

3. MTP can only be done in Hardware DSPs

4. Cisco Media Sense application is required

36. What does the regular expression + stand for?

1. + stands for plus dialing in E.164 numbers

2. Repeat the previous regular expression one or more times

3. Repeat the previous regular expression zero or more times

4. Match any single character

37. When using an IOS router for video conferencing, what is the maximum number of participants in a conference?

1. 5

2. 10

3. 15

4. 16

5. 4

38. Which QoS mechanism should be deployed on high-speed links?

1. cRTP

2. LFI

3. class model 5 to 11 classes

4. RSVP

39. Which phrase describes the purpose of calling privileges?

1. prioritizes voice over data

2. prioritizes important calls over less important calls

3. controls telephony charges

4. prioritizes on-net calls versus off-net calls

40. The personal multiparty license supports full HD video with a resolution of 1080p.

1. true

2. false

41. Which two items are features of class-based policing? (Choose two.)

1. single or multiaction policing

2. single or dual drop threshold

3. single-threshold or dual-threshold policing

4. single or dual FIFO queuing

5. single or dual token bucket

42. True or false The Cisco IOS gateways does support calls between to VoIP call legs.

1. false

2. true

43. Which is no consideration for dial plan design and documentation?

1. TON support

2. internal dial rules

3. PoE support

4. PSTN access codes

5. calling privileges

44.  Which of the following is not a valid option for the Drop Ad Hoc Conference service parameter?

1. When Conference Controller Leaves

2. When No On-Net Parties Remain in the Conference

3. Never (default)

4. When Scheduled Time is Over

45. Cisco TelePresence Conductor allows user to schedule conferences from Microsoft Outlook Calendar.

1. false

2. true

46. How many bytes overhead are used for RTP, UDP, and IP per packet?

1. 40 bytes

2. 24 bytes

3. 4 bytes

4. 2 bytes

47. Which two types of digit manipulation are commonly required on outgoing PSTN calls? (Choose two.)

1. adding the PSTN access code to the calling-party number

2. adding the PSTN access code to the called-party number

3. removing the PSTN access code from the called-party number

4. expanding the calling-party number to an E.164 number

48. The Cisco TelePresence MSE 8000 system can be integrated with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support scheduled conferences?

1. true

2. false

49. Which two media resources use one-way audio only? (Choose two.)

1. annunciator

2. Media Termination Point

3. music on hold

4. transcoding

5. audio conferencing

   
   

   

50. What is the element to configure in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when a group of phones should ring by dialing one number?

1. Group Pickup

2. Route Pattern

3. Hunt Pilot

4. Shared Line

5. Translation Pattern

51. Which audio file can be processed by Cisco Unified Communications Manager for MOH?

1. Ogg

2. WAV

3. WMA

4. MP3

52. Which of the following is not a valid call distribution method for a line group?

1. Top-down

2. Circular

3. Broadcast

4. Shortest idle time

53. What happens if someone calls a directory number that is shared by three devices?

1. This configuration is not possible.

2. The phone with the lowest MAC address rings.

3. The phone with the highest MAC address rings.

4. All three phones ring.

54. What is not a configuration requirement when implementing PSTN access over SIP trunks via Cisco Unified Border Element?

1. SIP route pattern in Cisco Unified CM

2. Inbound and outbound dial peers in Cisco Unified Border Element

3. Route pattern in Cisco Unified CM

4. SIP trunk in Cisco Unified CM

55. Which two statements about dial plan interworking are not true? (Choose two.)

1. Cisco Unified CM supports protocol interworking between any combination of SIP, SCCP, MGCP, and H.323.

2. By default, Cisco TelePresence VCS does not support calls between SIP and H.323.

3. Cisco IOS gateways do not support calls between POTS and POTS dial peers and between VoIP and VoIP dial peers.

4. By default, Cisco Unified Border Element does not support protocol interworking between SIP and SIP and between H.323 and H.323.

5. CUCM may require an MTP for some calls.

56. Which of the following describes the inbound dial peer selection process in correct order?

1. Incoming called-number matches calling number, answer-address matches calling number, destination-pattern matches called number, port matches the inbound voice port (POTS only)

2. Incoming called-number matches calling number, answer-address matches calling number, destination-pattern matches called number, port matches the inbound voice port (POTS only)

3. Incoming called-number matches called number, destination-pattern matches calling number, answer-address matches calling number, port matches the inbound voice port (POTS only)

4. Incoming called-number matches called number, answer-address matches calling number, destination-pattern matches calling number, port matches the inbound voice port (POTS only)

57. Which two settings are not configurable at a device pool? (Choose two.)

1. Phone Button Template

2. Softkey Template

3. Location

4. Region

5. Date/Time Group

58. On how many digits is the North American telephone network based?

1. 15-digit

2. 10-digit

3. 8-digit

4. 7-digit

59. Which two characteristics apply to enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)

1. Enterprise parameters apply to all devices and are configured per service.

2. A reload is required after changing any of the enterprise parameters.

3. Enterprise parameters allow the configuration of IP phone URLs.

4. Enterprise parameters can be configured per Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.

5. Enterprise parameters are used to define cluster-wide system settings.

60. Which statement does not apply to urgent priority?

1. Urgent priority is often used with emergency numbers.

2. Urgent priority is used to force immediate routing as soon as a match is detected—even if other, longer route patterns are potential matches.

3. A pattern with urgent priority effectively excludes the urgent pattern from a longer route pattern range.

4. Urgent priority can be configured at route patterns only.

61. What is the most important advantage of DiffServ over other QoS models?

1. many service levels

2. advanced queuing mechanisms

3. deterministic delays

4. guaranteed service

5. high scalability

62. When integrating Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) in a Cisco on-premises collaboration environment, which of the following practices is recommended according to Cisco SRND/PA?

1. Enable SRTP only on external gateways to secure communications with external entities

2. Implement SRTP for all voice and video communication to ensure end-to-end encryption

3. Apply SRTP selectively, based on the sensitivity of the communication content

4. Use SRTP only for video communications, as voice packets are generally not targeted by attackers

63. Which three conference types are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)

1. advanced Meet-Me conferences

2. advanced ad hoc conferences

3. scheduled conferences

4. Meet-Me conferences

5. scheduled ad hoc conferences

6. basic ad hoc conferences

64. The IT department of an international non-profit organization is revising its network QoS policies to better support its varied operations. They need to categorize their network traffic into several classes, ensuring that signals for remote environmental sensors are prioritized over general office communications but below real-time emergency communications. Which DSCP setting should the IT department use for the environmental sensor data?

1. CS2

2. CS3

3. AF31

4. EF

65. How many digits can an E.164 number have?

1. 15

2. 18

3. 12

4. 14

66. A large healthcare organization is optimizing its network to prioritize various types of traffic. They aim to enhance the quality of their telehealth services without disrupting the essential data traffic used for patient records and monitoring systems. Given the different types of data traffic, which Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) should be applied to streaming medical updates, which are less critical than live consultations but more important than general data?

1. EF

2. CS3

3. AF41

4. CS2

67. The Security by Default feature relies on which three integral components? (Choose three.)

1. Cisco TFTP server

2. Certificate Authority Proxy Function

3. Certificate Trust List

4. Trust Verification Service

5. Identity Trust List

68. The network team at a large enterprise is configuring the QoS settings to optimize the network for their new video conferencing system. They want to ensure that video conferencing traffic is treated with high importance but still ranked below voice traffic to prevent any compromise on voice call quality. Which DiffServ setting should the team use for the video conferencing system to meet these specifications?

1. AF31

2. AF42

3. CS4

4. EF

69. Which option does not provide conference services?

1. Cisco Unified Communications Manager

2. Cisco TelePresence MSE 8000

3. Cisco TelePresence Server

4. Cisco IOS Router

5. Cisco Unified Mobility

6. Cisco TelePresence MCU

70. In a multinational corporation, the IT department is tasked with refining the Quality of Service (QoS) settings to enhance the performance of collaboration tools across its global offices. The primary focus is to improve the quality of interactive video sessions used for executive meetings without surpassing the priority level designated for voice calls. Considering the company’s requirements, which Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) value should the IT department apply specifically for the interactive video session traffic?

1. CS3

2. EF

3. AF42

4. AF11

71. Which two features characterize converged network traffic? (Choose two.)

1. network protocol mix

2. bursty small packet flow

3. time-sensitive packets

4. intolerance of brief outages

5. no low-speed links

72. For a company implementing a new QoS strategy to support its collaboration tools, the IT department must categorize different types of traffic to ensure all tools function optimally under varying network conditions. If the goal is to rank higher importance on interactive training videos without impacting the priority assigned to voice communications, which DiffServ marking should be utilized?

1. CS4

2. AF42

3. AF11

4. EF

73. Which application is required to use video on hold in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution?

1. Cisco Media Communication Server

2. Cisco Media Sense

3. Video enabled DSPs on IOS gateway

4. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Video Media Resources

74. During a network audit, a technician identifies that video conference traffic is not being prioritized correctly, leading to subpar video quality during high network load. To rectify this, which DiffServ value should the technician configure for the video conference traffic to improve its quality without superseding the priority of real-time audio traffic?

1. AF21

2. CS2

3. AF42

4. EF

75. A network engineer is optimizing a QoS policy for the company’s collaboration suite, which includes voice, video, and interactive applications. The goal is to prioritize interactive video traffic over bulk data but ensure it remains less critical than real-time voice communication. Which DiffServ value should the engineer apply to interactive video traffic?

1. AF42

2. EF

3. AF31

4. CS3

   
   

   

FAQs

1. What is the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification exam?

It is Cisco’s core exam for the CCNP Collaboration certification, testing knowledge of collaboration infrastructure, protocols, codecs, gateways, call control, QoS, and applications.

2. How do I become CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certified?

You need to pass the 350-801 CLCOR exam plus one Cisco collaboration concentration exam to earn the CCNP Collaboration certification.

3. What are the prerequisites for the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

There are no strict prerequisites, but Cisco recommends 3–5 years of experience with collaboration technologies.

4. How much does the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification cost?

The exam fee is $400 USD.

5. How many questions are on the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

The exam typically includes 90–110 questions.

6. What is the passing score for the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

Cisco does not publish exact scores, but it is generally around 825/1000.

7. How long is the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

The exam duration is 120 minutes.

8. What topics are covered in the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

It covers infrastructure, protocols, codecs, call control, QoS, gateways, and collaboration applications.

9. How difficult is the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification exam?

It is considered challenging and requires both technical knowledge and practical experience with Cisco collaboration solutions.

10. How long does it take to prepare for the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam?

Most candidates prepare for 10–14 weeks, depending on prior experience.

11. Are there any CCNP Collaboration 350-801 sample questions or practice tests available?

Yes, Cisco provides exam guides, and CertiMaan offers dumps and practice tests.

12. What is the validity period of the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification?

The certification is valid for 3 years.

13. Can I retake the CCNP Collaboration 350-801 exam if I fail?

Yes, you can retake the exam after paying the fee again.

14. What jobs can I get with a CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification?

You can work as a Collaboration Engineer, Unified Communications Engineer, VoIP Engineer, or Network Consultant.

15. How much salary can I earn with a CCNP Collaboration 350-801 certification?

Professionals typically earn between $95,000–$135,000 annually, depending on role and location.