CCNP ENCOR 350-401 Dumps & Practice Exam Questions for 2026

Prepare effectively for the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam with the most reliable and up-to-date dumps and practice test questions. This study resource includes scenario-based 350-401 ENCOR exam questions, covering key topics such as network architecture, security, automation, infrastructure, and virtualization. Whether you're a network engineer or IT professional aiming for Cisco certification, these CCNP ENCOR 350-401 dumps and practice exams offer the ideal preparation material. With detailed explanations and real-world exam scenarios, you'll gain the confidence needed to ace your certification on the first try. Stay ahead in your networking career by leveraging the latest Cisco 350-401 dump files and test strategies trusted by top professionals worldwide.

CCNP ENCOR 350-401 Dumps & Sample Questions List :

1. What is the core focus of the Cisco ENCOR 350-401 certification exam?

1. Database management and design

2. Enterprise networking technologies

3. Wireless sensor networks

4. Application development and APIs

2. Which of the following is a benefit of becoming CCNP-certified?

1. Lifetime certification status

2. Access to Cisco source code

3. Improved employability through skill validation

4. Ability to skip all Cisco exams in future tracks

3. Which of the following is a direct prerequisite for the CCNP Enterprise certification?

1. Valid CompTIA Network+ certification

2. Prior completion of CCNA or CCIE

3. Cisco Specialist badge

4. Minimum 3 years of experience

4. What is one reason why Cisco redesigned their certification program?

1. To increase exam prices

2. To reduce the number of candidates

3. To align with evolving network automation and programmability trends

4. To stop offering hands-on certifications

5. What is the duration of the ENCOR 350-401 exam?

1. 90 minutes

2. 180 minutes

3. 60 minutes

4. 120 minutes

6. Which certification is granted after passing only the ENCOR core exam?

1. CCNP Collaboration

2. Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core

3. CCNP Security

4. CCIE Lab

7. Which of the following domains carries the highest weight in the ENCOR exam blueprint?

1. Security

2. Network Assurance

3. Infrastructure

4. Automation

8. Which protocol area is emphasized in the CCNP ENCOR exam?

1. BGP over MPLS VPNs

2. IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack

3. X.500 directory services

4. RDP tunneling

9. Which two certifications can be obtained by passing only the ENCOR 350-401 exam?

1. CCNP Security

2. Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core

3. CCNP Collaboration

4. Correct selection

5. CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (written exam requirement)

10. What is the exam fee for the ENCOR 350-401 core exam?

1. $200

2. $300

3. $400

4. $600

11. How long is the CCNP Enterprise certification valid after passing the exam?

1. 1 year

2. 2 years

3. 3 years

4. 5 years

12. What is the maximum number of exams required to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

   
   

   

13. Which platform is primarily recommended by IPSpecialist for practicing enterprise networking scenarios?

1. GNS3

2. Packet Tracer

3. Cisco Packet Monitor

4. EVE-NG

14.What does Cisco require for certification tracking and correspondence?

1. Physical passport

2. Valid email address

3. Facebook login

4. GitHub account

15. Why is the CCNP Enterprise certification still valuable in 2026?

1. It is a legal requirement for IT employment

2. It allows certification holders to bypass practical interviews

3. It validates advanced enterprise networking skills

4. It is the only certification Cisco offers

16. Who is the intended audience for the CCNP ENCOR certification?

1. Data entry clerks

2. Junior security analysts

3. Mid-level to senior network engineers

4. Financial analysts

17. Which of the following is NOT a CCNP Enterprise concentration exam?

1. ENARSI

2. SD-WAN

3. Wireless Design

4. Cloud Infrastructure

18. What is one advantage of CCNP Enterprise certification for organizations?

1. They can skip compliance audits

2. They can validate employee skill level

3. It increases tax deductions

4. It provides free equipment from Cisco

19. Which group is the ENCOR exam most suitable for?

1. Entry-level network technicians

2. Database administrators

3. Network engineers with 3–5 years of experience

4. Software developers

20. What is the benefit of using Cisco’s digital continuing education program?

1. Earn cryptocurrency

2. Recertify without retaking exams

3. Get hired automatically

4. Avoid exams permanently

21. What certification level is achieved after passing the core and a concentration exam under the CCNP Enterprise track?

1. CCNA Enterprise

2. Cisco Certified Specialist

3. CCNP Enterprise

4. CCIE Wireless

22. Why is the ENCOR exam considered difficult?

1. It includes essays and interviews

2. It is closed book with no lab

3. It requires deep understanding of enterprise networks

4. It is conducted in Latin

23. Which area is covered under both ENCOR and CCIE Enterprise written exams?

1. QoS for ISPs

2. Enterprise Core Technologies

3. ITIL Service Management

4. DevOps tools like Jenkins

24. Which of the following best describes the ENCOR certification’s role in the Cisco career path?

1. Final exam for architects

2. Core foundation for CCNP and CCIE Enterprise

3. Beginner-level for desktop support

4. Equivalent to a bachelor’s degree

25. Which statement about the CCNP ENCOR exam is accurate?

1. It covers only physical infrastructure

2. It includes lab-based simulations exclusively

3. It evaluates dual-stack, virtualization, security, and automation

4. It is designed for managers only

26. What is the primary reason for using Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a switched network?

1. Optimize routing paths

2. Provide IP addressing

3. Prevent Layer 2 loops

4. Encrypt MAC addresses

27. Which port role is new in RSTP compared to 802.1D STP?

1. Blocking

2. Designated

3. Alternate

4. Listening

28. Which VTP mode allows a switch to forward advertisements but not modify VLAN information?

1. Client

2. Transparent

3. Server

4. Passive

29. What must match between two switches for DTP to form a trunk?

1. IP subnet

2. STP priority

3. VTP domain

4. MAC address

30. What happens if a switch with a higher VTP configuration revision number is introduced into a network?

1. All VLANs will be added

2. The switch will automatically go into transparent mode

3. VLANs in the domain may be overwritten

4. Nothing changes unless manually approved

31. Which command disables trunk negotiation on a trunk port?

1. switchport mode access

2. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

3. switchport nonegotiate

4. switchport disable trunking

32. Which two statements describe Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?

1. Uses designated ports only

2. Converges faster than 802.1D

3. Uses PortFast for trunk ports

4. Supports edge and point-to-point port types

33. What happens when a port configured with switchport mode trunk connects to a port set to switchport mode access?

1. Trunk is formed

2. Access mode port is shut down

3. No trunking; connection remains access

4. Both ports go to blocking state

34. Which DTP mode will passively wait to receive negotiation requests to form a trunk?

1. Dynamic desirable

2. Dynamic auto

3. Trunk

4. Access

35. Which command is used to verify active trunk ports on a switch?

1. show interfaces

2. show interfaces trunk

3. show vtp status

4. show vlan brief

   
   

   

36. Which protocol allows multiple physical links between two switches to operate as one logical link?

1. STP

2. DTP

3. EtherChannel

4. VTP

37. Which EtherChannel mode combination between two switches ensures that a link is formed using LACP?

1. On - On

2. Passive - Passive

3. Active - Passive

4. Desirable - Auto

38. What is the main role of the VTP server?

1. Forward advertisements

2. Backup VLAN database

3. Create, modify, and delete VLANs

4. Encrypt VLAN transmissions

39. What is the effect of configuring a VTP domain name on a switch?

1. Increases spanning-tree priority

2. Resets configuration revision to 0

3. Enables DTP

4. Automatically forms EtherChannel

40. What command is used to display the current VTP version and domain configuration on a switch?

1. show vlan

2. show vtp status

3. show spanning-tree

4. show vtp mode

41. What is the purpose of MST (Multiple Spanning Tree)?

1. Enable trunking across different switch vendors

2. Increase VLAN forwarding convergence time

3. Map multiple VLANs to a single STP instance

4. Disable PVST completely

42. How many active physical interfaces can be bundled in a standard LACP EtherChannel on most Cisco switches?

1. 4

2. 8

3. 10

4. 16

43. In EtherChannel, what happens if one physical link goes down?

1. The entire logical link fails

2. STP blocks all traffic

3. Remaining links continue forwarding

4. VTP is disabled

44. What does VTP pruning achieve in a VLAN network?

1. Encrypts VLAN advertisements

2. Limits broadcast traffic on trunk links

3. Adds redundancy

4. Allows load balancing

45. Which encapsulation types are supported on trunk ports?

1. HDLC and PPP

2. Token Ring

3. ISL and 802.1Q

4. GRE and IPsec

46. In MST, what is the role of the CIST (Common and Internal Spanning Tree)?

1. Connects to legacy PVST networks

2. Manages the BPDU filtering

3. Coordinates STP across all regions

4. Aggregates multiple MSTIs

47. What is the purpose of the root bridge in STP?

1. Provide NAT services

2. Encrypt BPDU frames

3. Act as reference point for all path calculations

4. Store VLAN database

48. Which two protocols can negotiate EtherChannel on Cisco switches?

1. HSRP

2. LACP

3. RSTP

4. PAgP

49. When configuring DTP, which mode combination will NOT result in a trunk?

1. Trunk – Dynamic desirable

2. Dynamic desirable – Dynamic auto

3. Dynamic auto – Dynamic auto

4. Trunk – Trunk

50. Which command is used to set a port permanently as a trunk?

1. switchport mode dynamic auto

2. switchport nonegotiate

3. switchport mode trunk

4. encapsulation dot1q

51. Which type of routing protocol is EIGRP classified as?

1. Link-state

2. Path-vector

3. Advanced distance vector

4. Static

52. Which of the following is a requirement to configure EIGRP over IPv6?

1. Use of the router eigrp global mode

2. Use of network statements

3. Explicit interface configuration

4. Running RIPng simultaneously

53. Which metric is not considered by default in EIGRP metric calculation?

1. Bandwidth

2. Load

3. Delay

4. Reliability

54. Which two routing protocols support manual summarization?

1. OSPF

2. EIGRP

3. BGP

4. RIP

55. What is the administrative distance of EIGRP for internal routes?

1. 120

2. 110

3. 90

4. 170

56. What is the primary difference between iBGP and eBGP?

1. iBGP runs inside an enterprise; eBGP between ISPs

2. iBGP has a hop count limit

3. eBGP does not require full mesh

4. iBGP uses next-hop-self by default

57. What algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate loop-free and backup paths?

1. SPF

2. Dijkstra

3. Bellman-Ford

4. DUAL

58. What is the default TTL for eBGP sessions?

1. 128

2. 1

3. 255

4. 64

59. Which command verifies EIGRP neighbors on a Cisco router?

1. show ip protocols

2. show ip eigrp interfaces

3. show ip eigrp neighbors

4. show ip route

60. Which BGP attribute is used in the best path selection and indicates the origin of the route?

1. AS-Path

2. Origin

3. Weight

4. Local Preference

61. In OSPF, what is the router type that connects multiple areas?

1. ASBR

2. DR

3. ABR

4. BR

62. What command advertises a specific network in BGP if a matching route exists in the routing table?

1. neighbor advertise

2. bgp route-source

3. network [ip] mask [subnet]

4. redistribute static

63. Which of the following OSPF LSA types is used for summarization between areas?

1. Type 1

2. Type 2

3. Type 3

4. Type 5

64. In BGP, what does the Local Preference attribute influence?

1. Route advertisements to external peers

2. Preference for outbound traffic

3. Loop prevention

4. Inbound route selection

65. Which network type in OSPF does not require a DR/BDR election?

1. Broadcast

2. Point-to-point

3. Non-broadcast

4. Multipoint

66. Which BGP attribute is used to prevent routing loops across autonomous systems?

1. MED

2. Origin

3. Weight

4. AS-Path

67. In which scenario is the OSPF command ip ospf network non-broadcast typically used?

1. Ethernet connections

2. Point-to-point T1 lines

3. Frame Relay networks

4. Serial links with PPP

68. What is the function of the OSPF passive-interface command?

1. Prevents the router from processing LSAs

2. Disables SPF computation

3. Prevents sending hello packets on the interface

4. Forces DR/BDR reelection

69. Which two conditions must be met for OSPF neighbors to form an adjacency?

1. Hello/dead timers must match

2. Metric type must be the same

3. MTU must be identical

4. Area ID must match

70. What mechanism does OSPF use to prevent routing loops within an area?

1. Feasibility condition

2. Poison reverse

3. DUAL algorithm

4. Link-state database synchronization

71. Which EIGRP term describes a route that meets the feasibility condition and can be used as a backup path?

1. Successor

2. Feasible successor

3. Topology route

4. Loop-prevention route

72. Which command verifies the RID (router ID) of an OSPF process?

1. show ip ospf id

2. show ip ospf process

3. show ip protocols

4. show ip ospf

73. What is the OSPF default administrative distance?

1. 120

2. 90

3. 110

4. 170

74. When multiple OSPF routers have the same priority on a broadcast network, what determines the DR?

1. Interface bandwidth

2. Loopback IP address

3. Router ID

4. Hello interval

75. In BGP, what must be configured to allow eBGP neighbors to form adjacency if they are not directly connected?

1. Neighbor hold-time

2. ebgp-multihop

3. TTL of 0

4. Route reflector

   
   

   

FAQs

1. What is the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification exam?

It is Cisco’s core exam for the CCNP Enterprise certification, testing knowledge of enterprise networking, including dual-stack (IPv4/IPv6) architecture, virtualization, security, automation, and infrastructure.

2. How do I become CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certified?

You need to pass the 350-401 ENCOR exam along with one Cisco concentration exam to earn the CCNP Enterprise certification.

3. What are the prerequisites for the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

There are no strict prerequisites, but Cisco recommends 3–5 years of experience in enterprise networking.

4. How much does the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification cost?

The exam fee is $400 USD.

5. How many questions are on the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

The exam typically includes 90–110 questions.

6. What is the passing score for the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

Cisco does not disclose exact passing scores, but it is generally around 825/1000.

7. How long is the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

The exam duration is 120 minutes.

8. What topics are covered in the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

It covers architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation.

9. How difficult is the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification exam?

It is considered challenging, requiring in-depth theoretical knowledge and hands-on networking experience.

10. How long does it take to prepare for the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam?

Most candidates take 10–14 weeks of study and practice to prepare.

11. Are there any CCNP ENCOR 350-401 sample questions or practice tests available?

Yes, Cisco provides sample materials, and CertiMaan offers dumps and practice tests.

12. What is the validity period of the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification?

The certification is valid for 3 years.

13. Can I retake the CCNP ENCOR 350-401 exam if I fail?

Yes, you can retake the exam after paying the fee again.

14. What jobs can I get with a CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification?

You can work as a Network Engineer, Enterprise Network Specialist, Infrastructure Engineer, or Solutions Architect.

15. How much salary can I earn with a CCNP ENCOR 350-401 certification?

Certified professionals typically earn between $90,000–$130,000 annually, depending on role and location.