CCNA Sample Questions ( 2025 ): Practice for 200‑301 Exam with Real Test Insights

Boost your CCNA exam preparation with these expertly crafted CCNA sample questions tailored for the 200‑301 certification. Our handpicked questions simulate real exam scenarios and are ideal for learners using CCNA practice tests, reviewing CCNA exam questions, or exploring CCNA dumps to reinforce their knowledge. Whether you're attempting your first ccna exam test or brushing up before retaking, this guide delivers focused practice and exam-level confidence.

CCNA Sample Questions List :

1. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

A. reduced operational costs

B. reduced hardware footprint

C. faster changes with more reliable results

D. fewer network failures

E. increased network security

2. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A. ip address dhcp

B. ip helper-address

C. ip dhcp pool

D. ip dhcp client

3. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices

B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

4. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A. 2000::/3

B. 2002::5

C. FC00::/7

D. FF02::1

E. FF02::2

5. Which option about JSON is true?

A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text

B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C. used for storing information

D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

A. global unicast

B. unique local

C. link-local

D. multicast

7. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?

A. enable secret

B. service password-encryption

C. username Cisco password encrypt

D. enable password

8. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two)

A. OpenFlow

B. NETCONF

C. Thrift

D. CORBA

E. DSC

9. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multi-factor authentication?

A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

10. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)

A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

11. An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company’s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A. Physical access control

B. Social engineering attack

C. brute force attack

D. user awareness

12. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?

A. TKIP with RC4

B. RC4

C. AES-128

D. AES-256

13. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image.

B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch.

D. A console password must be configured on the switch.

E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.

14. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A. outside global

B. outsdwde local

C. inside global

D. insride local

E. outside public

F. inside public

15. How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path.

D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

16. In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.

B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

17. Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.

B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity.

C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets.

Correct selection

D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

E. It supports protocol discovery.

18. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A. CDP

B. SNMP

C. SMTP

D. ARP

19. A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A. runts

B. giants

C. frame

D. CRC

E. input errors

20. When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.

21. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A. Configure the version of SSH.

B. Configure VTY access.

C. Create a user with a password.

D. Assign a DNS domain name.

22. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password.

C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.

23. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

B. It drops the traffic.

C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.

D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

24. An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

A. interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252

B. interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248

C. interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248

D. interface e0/0

description to HQ-A370:98968

ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

25. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.

B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.

C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.

D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

26. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.

C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.

D. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.

E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.

27. Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated.

B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.

C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects.

D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and errdisabled.

28. Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

A. management

B. protected frame

C. control

D. action

29. Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

A. Enable NTP authentication.

B. Verify the time zone.

C. Disable NTP broadcasts.

D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.

E. Set the NTP server private key.

30. When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A. forwarding

B. listening

C. standby

D. backup

31. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.

B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.

C. It moves the control plane to a central point.

D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.

E. It uses Telnet to report system issues.

32. Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A. 20

B. 90

C. 110

D. 115

33. Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

A. dual algorithm

B. metric

C. administrative distance

D. hop count

34. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A. It enables BPDU messages

B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

35. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. sniffer

B. mesh

C. flexconnect

D. local

36. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.

37. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A. YAML

B. JSON

C. EBCDIC

D. SGML

E. XML

38. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A. 2000::/3

B. FC00::/7

C. FE80::/10

D. FF00::/8

39. What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B. when the cable length limits are exceeded

C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D. when Carner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

40. Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

A. management interface settings

B. QoS settings

C. Ip address of one or more access points

D. SSID

E. Profile name

41. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link.

E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

42. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.

D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

43. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

A. lldp timer

B. lldo holdtimt

C. lldp reinit

D. lldp tlv-select

44. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

A. The link is in a down state.

B. The link is in an error disables state

C. The link is becomes an access port.

D. The link becomes a trunk port.

45. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

A. Exchange

B. 2-way

C. Full

D. Init

46. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

A. CPU ACL

B. TACACS

C. Flex ACL

D. RADIUS

47. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B. Administratively shut down the ports.

C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99.

D. Configure the ports as trunk ports.

E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.

48. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A. port-to-multipoint

B. broadcast

C. point-to-point

D. nonbroadcast

49. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A. Bronze

B. Platinum

C. Silver

D. Gold

50. An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A. platform-as-a-service

B. software-as-a-service

C. network-as-a-service

D. infrastructure-as-a-service

FAQs

1. What is the CCNA certification and what does it cover?

CCNA is Cisco’s entry-level certification that validates foundational knowledge in networking, IP connectivity, security, automation, and programmability.

2. Is CCNA still worth it in 2025?

Yes, CCNA remains a highly respected credential in the networking field and is often a prerequisite for many IT networking jobs.

3. Who should take the CCNA certification?

Aspiring network engineers, support technicians, system administrators, and anyone starting a career in networking should take the CCNA.

4. What is the current version of CCNA exam?

As of 2025, the current version is the 200-301 CCNA exam.

5. What are the benefits of getting CCNA certified?

Benefits include stronger job prospects, foundational networking knowledge, a stepping stone to advanced Cisco certifications, and higher salary potential.

6. What is the exam code for the CCNA certification?

The official exam code is 200-301.

7. How many questions are on the CCNA exam?

The CCNA exam typically contains 100 to 120 questions, varying slightly by candidate.

8. What type of questions are asked in the CCNA exam?

You’ll face multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, simulation, and performance-based questions.

9. What is the passing score for the CCNA exam?

Cisco does not officially publish a passing score, but it's estimated to be around 825 out of 1000.

10. How long is the CCNA exam duration?

You’ll have 120 minutes (2 hours) to complete the exam.

11. Is there any prerequisite for the CCNA certification?

No, there are no formal prerequisites for CCNA. However, a basic understanding of networking concepts is helpful.

12. How many attempts are allowed for the CCNA exam?

There’s no limit on the number of attempts, but you must wait 5 calendar days between each try.

13. How to prepare for the CCNA exam in 2025?

Use CertiMaan’s practice tests and Cisco’s official study resources like the Cisco Learning Network and training courses.

14. What are the best books and resources for CCNA certification?

Top picks include Cisco’s “Official Cert Guide,” CertiMaan’s dumps and mock exams, and labs from Cisco Packet Tracer.

15. Are there free practice tests for CCNA?

Yes, you can find free practice questions on CertiMaan and basic quizzes on the Cisco Learning Network.

16. Can I pass the CCNA exam with self-study?

Yes, many candidates pass using self-study, especially when combining CertiMaan’s materials with Cisco’s labs and guides.

17. How long does it take to prepare for the CCNA exam?

On average, preparation takes 8 to 12 weeks, depending on your background and study plan.

18. Does CertiMaan provide dumps or practice tests for CCNA?

Yes, CertiMaan offers updated dumps, mock exams, and lab simulations to help you succeed.

19. What topics are most important in the CCNA exam?

Key topics include IP addressing, subnetting, routing protocols (like OSPF), network security, and automation basics.

20. What is the cost of the CCNA certification exam?

The exam costs $300 USD (plus tax where applicable).

21. How do I register for the CCNA exam?

You can register via Pearson VUE through the Cisco Certification Portal.

22. Can I take the CCNA exam online from home?

Yes, Cisco offers online proctored exams via Pearson VUE’s OnVUE platform.

23. Is there any discount available for the CCNA exam?

Discounts may be available for students, through Cisco Learning Network promotions, or via bulk corporate purchases.

24. How long is the CCNA certification valid?

CCNA is valid for 3 years from the date of passing.

25. How do I renew my CCNA certification?

You can renew by passing another CCNA or higher-level Cisco exam, or by earning Continuing Education credits.

26. What happens if I fail the CCNA exam?

You can retake it after a 5-day wait period, but you’ll need to pay the exam fee again.

27. How many times can I retake the CCNA exam?

There’s no limit, but each attempt requires payment of the full exam fee.

28. What jobs can I get after CCNA certification?

Common roles include Network Engineer, Help Desk Technician, System Administrator, and NOC Technician.

29. What is the average salary for a CCNA certified professional?

Salaries typically range from $60,000 to $90,000 USD depending on location and experience.

30. Is CCNA enough to get a networking job?

Yes, CCNA provides enough knowledge for entry-level jobs, though hands-on skills and additional certifications can help.

31. Which companies hire CCNA certified candidates?

Top employers include Cisco, IBM, AT&T, Infosys, Accenture, and many IT service providers globally.