ISTQB CTFL Sample Questions & Practice Exam for 2026 Certification

Prepare for your ISTQB CTFL certification with this curated set of sample questions, designed to align with the latest CTFL 2026 exam format. These questions are ideal for anyone looking to strengthen their skills using an ISTQB CTFL Sample Questions, CTFL practice test, CTFL practice exam, or mock test. Covering all foundational concepts—software testing principles, life cycles, techniques, and test management—this resource offers real exam-style practice. Whether you're revising through an ISTQB CTFL sample exam or solving domain-wise test scenarios, this content ensures a complete understanding of the syllabus. Combine it with official ISTQB materials and CTFL certification dumps to improve your pass rate significantly.

ISTQB CTFL Sample Questions List :

1. What is the primary objective of the review process during the feedback and review stage of software development?

1. To assess the performance of individual team members based on their contributions.

2. To improve the quality of the work product by identifying defects, ambiguities, and areas for improvement.

3. To ensure team members adhere strictly to coding standards and guidelines.

4. To identify and fix defects in the product before it is delivered to the customer.

2. What is a primary benefit of the whole-team approach in Agile testing environments?

1. It assigns testing tasks exclusively to dedicated testers, ensuring accountability.

2. It fosters collaboration, resulting in faster feedback and quicker defect resolution.

3. It reduces the involvement of non-technical stakeholders, focusing on technical team members.

4. It eliminates the need for detailed documentation by relying solely on team discussions.

3. A software testing team is reviewing a new feature in a financial application that calculates loan eligibility based on income, credit score, and employment history. The function contains multiple conditional statements, loops, and nested decisions. The team wants to measure how complex the function is and ensure adequate test coverage. Which white-box test technique should they use?

1. State Transition Testing

2. Usability Testing

3. Cyclomatic Complexity Analysis

4. Boundary Value Analysis

4. Which of the following factors have a SIGNIFICANT influence on test planning? (Choose three)

1. The test execution schedules

2. The release deadlines

3. The available test tools

4. The test basis (e.g., requirements and design documents)

5. The level of tester experience

5. Why is involving stakeholders early and frequently in the review process considered a best practice in software development?

1. It reduces the number of code reviews needed during the development phase.

2. It helps in identifying risks and potential usability issues before significant development effort is invested.

3. It reduces the overall cost of development by bypassing formal review and testing processes.

4. It shifts the responsibility of defect detection entirely to the stakeholders.

6. Why is testing necessary in software development?

1. To reduce the likelihood of defects in the software and improve quality.

2. To completely eliminate all defects in the software.

3. To ensure that the software works only on the developer's machine.

4. To increase the complexity of the software to detect edge cases.

7. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a test execution tool?

1. It automates the execution of test scripts and logs results automatically.

2. It tracks and reports on test cases and their status during a testing cycle.

3. It manages the allocation of test resources and schedules for testing activities.

4. It provides detailed visualizations of code coverage and static analysis results.

8. A healthcare software company is developing a patient management system and adopts a risk-based testing approach with collaboration-based techniques. Which strategy best utilizes collaboration to prioritize testing efforts effectively?

1. Developers should rank risks before testers begin their testing activities.

2. Cross-functional teams, including testers, developers, and business analysts, should jointly assess risks and define testing priorities.

3. Only testers should assess risks, as they have the expertise to identify test priorities.

4. Business analysts should define risks alone, as they best understand customer impact.

9. Why would you recommend implementing daily stand-up meetings in your Agile testing process?

1. Stand-ups improve team collaboration by identifying blockers and sharing progress daily.

2. Stand-ups provide an opportunity to discuss long-term strategic improvements for future projects.

3. Daily stand-ups eliminate the need for detailed documentation in Agile projects.

4. Daily stand-ups help to reduce testing costs by shortening the test execution phase.

10. Which of the following is an essential activity during the test execution phase of the software testing lifecycle?

1. Reviewing the software requirements specification (SRS).

2. Designing and creating test cases based on requirements.

3. Writing the test plan and defining test objectives.

4. Logging and reporting defects identified during testing.

11. Which of the following best describes the relationship between an error, a defect, and a failure?

1. A defect occurs when a failure is introduced in the software.

2. An error made by a human can lead to a defect in the software, which may cause a failure during execution.

3. A failure is the root cause of all errors and defects in a system.

4. An error is the same as a failure, but they occur at different times.

12. Which of the following statements best describes checklist-based testing?

1. A technique that relies on the tester's personal intuition to identify defects without predefined criteria.

2. A technique that automates the creation and execution of test cases based on user stories.

3. A testing strategy where only exploratory testing is conducted without any documentation.

4. A testing approach that uses a predefined list of conditions, requirements, or activities to verify a product's functionality.

13. A project manager is concerned about the risks associated with implementing test automation for a new project. They want to ensure the team is aware of potential challenges and limitations before proceeding. Which of the following is a key risk associated with test automation?

1. Test automation tools can only be used for testing web applications.

2. Test automation guarantees that all functional requirements are tested.

3. Test automation requires significant upfront investment in time and resources.

4. Automated tests provide inaccurate results if executed in a CI/CD pipeline.

14. Your team is maintaining a legacy e-commerce platform with a history of stability issues. A new tester joins the team and is assigned to test a recent security patch. The lead tester suggests using error guessing to focus testing efforts. Which approach best demonstrates how error guessing should be applied in this scenario?

1. The tester should automate all test cases and let the automated scripts find the errors.

2. The tester should run random test cases without any specific strategy to uncover hidden defects.

3. The tester should only test areas explicitly mentioned in the security patch documentation.

4. The tester should analyze past defect reports and focus testing on similar areas where issues have been found before.

15. A software company follows an Agile development lifecycle with short iterations and frequent releases. The test team is struggling to keep up with the fast-paced changes and is considering how to best integrate testing into the development process. What is the most effective approach to testing in this Agile environment?

1. Adopt continuous testing by integrating test activities throughout the sprint and leveraging test automation where feasible.

2. Separate testing from development by scheduling a dedicated testing phase after each sprint.

3. Automate only the regression tests and execute them before each release to ensure stability.

4. Execute all test cases at the end of each sprint to ensure complete functionality is tested before release.

16. You are testing a system that accepts input values between 1 and 100 inclusive. Using equivalence partitioning, which of the following sets of test cases is correct?

1. {0, 1, 50, 99, 100}

2. {1, 50, 99, 100, 101}

3. {50, 75, 100}

4. {0, 1, 50, 100, 101}

17. Which of the following best differentiates testing from debugging?

1. Testing and debugging are interchangeable terms used to describe the process of locating defects in software.

2. Testing involves identifying defects, while debugging involves fixing those defects.

3. Debugging is an activity that is always performed before testing begins.

4. Debugging is performed by testers, while testing is done by developers.

18. Which of the following best describes the purpose of Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)?

1. ATDD is solely focused on automating test execution for the entire development process.

2. ATDD eliminates the need for collaboration between testers and developers.

3. ATDD focuses on creating unit tests for developers to verify individual functions.

4. ATDD defines acceptance criteria collaboratively and creates test cases based on these criteria.

19. Which of the following is NOT true about black-box testing?

1. Black-box testing is suitable for all levels of testing, including unit, integration, and system testing.

2. Black-box testing focuses on verifying the functionality of the software based on requirements.

3. Black-box testing techniques include equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis.

4. Black-box testing requires knowledge of the internal code structure.

20. Which of the following is considered a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

1. Performing testing without considering business requirements or user needs.

2. Conducting testing only at the end of the project to ensure no defects are missed.

3. Designing and preparing test cases as early as possible in the development process.

4. Delaying testing until the software is fully developed to save time and resource.

21. How does DevOps influence the adoption of shift-left testing practices in the software development lifecycle?

1. It prioritizes testing at the end of the development lifecycle due to rapid deployment requirements.

2. It discourages shift-left testing because testing is entirely handled post-deployment.

3. It encourages shift-left testing by integrating tests into earlier phases of development to catch defects sooner.

4. It delays testing to accommodate frequent software builds.

22. Which of the following responsibilities is typically associated with a Test Analyst, but not a Test Manager?

1. Monitoring testing progress and providing status reports to stakeholders.

2. Designing test cases based on functional requirements and executing them.

3. Defining the budget and resource allocation for the testing phase.

4. Developing the overall test strategy and ensuring it aligns with business objectives.

23. Which statement is correct regarding the relationship between development and testing activities in an SDLC model?

1. Testing activities are only applicable in Agile SDLC models.

2. Testing activities occur only after the development phase is complete.

3. Testing activities should mirror development activities in all SDLC models.

4. Testing activities should be independent of development activities.

24. Which of the following best describes how the "shift left" approach aligns with the Agile development model?

1. It ensures all testing occurs after the coding phase.

2. It relies exclusively on developers writing unit tests.

3. It encourages iterative and continuous testing throughout development.

4. It eliminates the need for test automation.

25. What is one primary benefit of having an independent testing team?

1. Independent testers can complete testing faster than the development team.

2. Independent testers are less biased and can provide an objective assessment of the software.

3. Independent testers guarantee that the software will be defect-free.

4. Independent testers eliminate the need for developer testing.

26. During a risk management session, a test team identifies the risk of late delivery of a critical component by a third-party vendor. Which of the following is the best risk mitigation strategy?

1. Focus testing only on low-risk areas of the system to save time.

2. Increase the testing scope to include additional functionalities.

3. Delay the start of testing until the critical component is delivered.

4. Create test stubs or mocks to simulate the critical component’s behavior.

27. Which TWO of the following options are valid exit criteria for testing a system? (Choose two)

1. Defect leakage rate is within acceptable limits

2. Test execution team has been trained in Agile methodology

3. Exploratory testing was performed by at least one team member

4. All functional requirements have been tested at least once

5. Development team has fixed all low-priority defects

28. During the test completion phase, you are reviewing metrics to evaluate the effectiveness of the testing process. One of the metrics you are reviewing is the percentage of test cases passed. What is the main limitation of using this metric to assess the success of testing?

1. It does not measure the coverage of the test cases

2. It only measures the number of executed tests, not their quality

3. It does not consider the severity of the defects found

4. It ignores the cost of testing

29. A bank is launching a new online banking application, and the test manager is planning the execution of test cases. Given limited testing time, the team must prioritize test cases that maximize defect detection early in the cycle. Which test case should be given the highest priority?

1. A test ensuring that users can transfer money between their own accounts.

2. A test confirming that the application loads the homepage within 2 seconds.

3. A test verifying that the user can successfully change their profile picture.

4. A test verifying that error messages are displayed correctly when an incorrect password is entered.

30. A financial services company updates its transaction processing system to comply with new government regulations. The updates involve changes to tax calculations and reporting rules. What type of maintenance testing is most appropriate for this situation?

1. Corrective maintenance testing

2. Adaptive maintenance testing

3. Non-functional maintenance testing

4. Retesting (confirmation testing)

31. You are testing a healthcare scheduling application where patients can book doctor appointments. Instead of following a structured test plan, you explore different workflows of the application, trying out different booking combinations and noting any unexpected behaviors or UI inconsistencies. Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?

1. Black-box testing

2. Exploratory testing

3. Error guessing

4. Checklist-based testing

32. Which of the following is a valid reason for conducting a defect triage meeting?

1. To celebrate defect resolution milestones and improve team morale.

2. To prioritize defects based on their severity, impact, and risk.

3. To assign defect ownership and ensure developers are held accountable.

4. To validate test case coverage for all identified defects.

33. Your test suite achieved 100% branch coverage. What is the consequence of this fact?

1. Every possible combination of inputs has been tested.

2. Every decision point in the code has been evaluated for both true and false outcomes.

3. Each statement in the code has been executed at least once, regardless of the decision outcomes.

4. Every possible path through the code has been executed at least once.

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a shift-left approach in testing?

1. Performing unit testing early in the development lifecycle

2. Executing end-to-end tests after system integration

3. Reviewing design specifications before development begins

4. Collaborating on test cases with developers during sprint planning

35. You are working in a team that follows a Waterfall development model. Which TWO of the following activities CAN be performed during the requirements phase? (Choose two)

1. Debugging production issues

2. Reviewing requirements for testability

3. Executing system tests

4. Implementing automation scripts

5. Defining high-level test strategy

36. During system testing, a tester finds that the application crashes when entering a specific invalid input value. Upon investigation, it is discovered that the developer forgot to handle null values in the input validation logic. What does this situation describe?

1. An error

2. A failure

3. An incident

4. A defect

37. Your team is testing a new social media platform, and a requirement states: “The system must handle image uploads of up to 10 MB within 5 seconds.” You create test cases to verify the time taken for various image uploads and compare the results to the requirement. What type of testing are you conducting?

1. Usability, because it evaluates how the user interacts with the image upload feature.

2. Non-functional, because it tests the performance and response time of the system.

3. Structural, because you are analyzing the system’s internal behavior.

4. Functional, because it verifies the image upload feature.

38. A retail company is launching a new e-commerce platform. The risk analysis identifies that checkout payment processing and data security pose the highest risks. The test manager must decide how risk analysis should impact the thoroughness of testing. Which of the following is the best testing strategy given the identified risks?

1. Focus only on functional testing, as non-functional aspects do not impact transactions.

2. Conduct extensive security and payment transaction testing while applying lighter testing to less critical areas.

3. Reduce test coverage for payment processing to meet the project deadline.

4. Allocate equal effort to all test areas to ensure balanced coverage.

39. How can retrospectives be effectively used as a mechanism for process improvement in a software development lifecycle?

1. They are primarily used to monitor compliance with organizational policies and guidelines.

2. They provide a platform for team members to share lessons learned and identify areas of improvement.

3. They focus solely on identifying individual team members’ weaknesses for accountability purposes.

4. They allow stakeholders to directly control the timeline and budget of the project.

40. What is the primary purpose of confirmation testing?

1. To identify new defects introduced by changes in the code.

2. To validate the integration of multiple components in the system.

3. To verify that new functionality works as intended.

4. To confirm that the previously fixed defect has been successfully resolved.

41. Which TWO of the following are valid entry criteria for beginning system testing? (Choose two)

1. Test execution is 100% completed

2. Test scripts are automated for all test cases

3. Functional specifications are finalized and approved

4. Test cases are prepared and reviewed

5. Test environment is set up and validated

42. Which TWO of the following are key factors to consider when defining exit criteria for testing? (Choose two)

1. The percentage of requirements covered by test cases

2. The percentage of test automation achieved

3. The tester’s subjective confidence in system quality

4. The number of test cases executed successfully

5. The residual risk assessment based on defect trends

43. A medical device software company is developing an application that calculates insulin dosages for diabetic patients. The test team is conducting a product risk analysis to determine the appropriate test scope. Which of the following best describes how risk analysis should influence test scope in this case?

1. Prioritize thorough testing of calculation accuracy and safety features due to high risk.

2. Reduce testing time for this module and focus on UI/UX enhancements instead.

3. Focus primarily on functional testing, as security risks are not relevant.

4. Minimize testing efforts since medical software follows strict regulatory reviews.

44. What is a key characteristic of a successful retrospective meeting in the context of process improvement?

1. It encourages team members to propose actionable solutions to identified problems.

2. It is focused primarily on reviewing performance metrics and achieving KPIs.

3. It enforces strict rules to ensure every team member discusses their mistakes.

4. It is led solely by a project manager to ensure alignment with business goals.

45. Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate method to ensure test cases align with the acceptance criteria for a user story?

1. Collaborating with stakeholders to define acceptance criteria that are measurable and testable.

2. Writing test cases based on assumptions about user needs without consulting stakeholders.

3. Creating high-level test scenarios without reviewing the user story details.

4. Relying on exploratory testing to cover possible scenarios implied by the user story.

46. Which of the following should NOT be included in a test report for an audience of non-technical stakeholders?

1. Recommendations for corrective actions based on testing outcomes.

2. High-level summary of testing progress and results.

3. A list of critical defects found during testing and their impact.

4. Detailed information about test environment configuration.

47. Your organization plans to deploy a new system and suggests that tests are conducted to validate the transfer of data from the old system to the new system. As part of what test type is this testing MOST likely to be performed?

1. Usability testing

2. Regression testing

3. Migration testing

4. Unit testing

48. Which work product helps an agile team track the progress of individual tasks during an iteration by visually showing the tasks completed, in progress, and yet to be started?

1. Kanban board

2. Burndown chart

3. Defect density chart

4. Test strategy

49. Which TWO of the following tasks belong MAINLY to a testing role? (Choose two)

1. Approve product releases

2. Define coding standards

3. Execute test cases and report defects

4. Design test cases based on requirements

5. Create the system architecture

FAQs

1. What is the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level certification?

The ISTQB CTFL is an entry-level certification that validates your understanding of software testing principles and practices.

2. Is ISTQB CTFL worth it for a software testing career?

Yes, it’s widely recognized and helps kick start or grow your career in software testing with global acceptance.

3. How do I become ISTQB Foundation Level certified?

You need to study the syllabus, prepare using official or trusted materials, and pass the CTFL exam.

4. What are the eligibility criteria for ISTQB CTFL?

There are no formal prerequisites. Anyone interested in software testing can take the exam.

5. Can I take the ISTQB Foundation Level exam without experience?

Yes, the exam is open to beginners and does not require prior work experience.

6. What is the ISTQB CTFL exam format?

The exam is multiple choice with 40 questions, and it’s closed book.

7. How many questions are in the ISTQB Foundation exam?

There are 40 questions, and each carries one mark.

8. What is the passing score for ISTQB Foundation Level?

You need at least 26 correct answers out of 40, which is a 65% score to pass.

9. How much does the ISTQB Foundation Level exam cost?

The cost varies by country, generally ranging between $150 and $250 USD.

10. Where can I register for the ISTQB CTFL exam?

You can register through the official ISTQB website or your national board’s exam provider.

11. What topics are covered in the ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus?

It covers testing fundamentals, testing throughout the software lifecycle, static techniques, test design, tools, and process improvement.

12. How should I prepare for the ISTQB Foundation Level exam?

Use CertiMaan's practice tests and the official ISTQB CTFL syllabus to guide your preparation.

13. What are the best books or resources for ISTQB CTFL preparation?

Refer to the official ISTQB CTFL syllabus and study guides available on CertiMaan and the ISTQB website.

14. How long does it take to prepare for ISTQB Foundation Level?

Typically, 3 to 5 weeks of study is sufficient depending on your prior knowledge and study schedule.

15. Does CertiMaan provide ISTQB CTFL practice questions or dumps?

Yes, CertiMaan offers up-to-date CTFL practice questions and mock exams aligned with the current syllabus.

16. Can I take the ISTQB CTFL exam online from home?

Yes, ISTQB offers online proctored exams depending on your local exam provider.

17. What is the validity of the ISTQB Foundation Level certificate?

The certificate does not expire and is valid for life.

18. What are the benefits of ISTQB Foundation Level certification?

It improves your testing knowledge, boosts your resume, and opens up job opportunities in QA and testing.

19. What job roles can I get after ISTQB Foundation Level certification?

Common roles include QA Tester, Test Analyst, Junior Test Engineer, and QA Associate.

20. Is ISTQB Foundation Level globally recognized?

Yes, ISTQB is recognized worldwide and widely accepted by employers across various industries.