ISACA CRISC Sample Questions & Practice Test for 2026 Exam

Prepare for the ISACA CRISC certification with this handpicked set of sample questions, designed to mirror the actual 2026 exam. Covering all four domains—IT risk identification, assessment, response, and control—these ISACA CRISC Sample Questions are ideal for candidates reviewing with a CRISC practice test, practice exam, or CRISC exam dumps. Whether you're brushing up on critical topics or evaluating your exam readiness, this resource enhances your confidence with scenario-based CRISC test questions. Use it in combination with domain-specific guides, full-length CRISC practice exams, and official ISACA materials to ensure success in your CRISC certification journey.

ISACA CRISC Sample Questions List :

1. An enterprise has identified risk events in a project. While responding to these identified risk events, which among the following stakeholders is MOST important for reviewing risk response options to an IT risk.

A. Information security managers

B. Business managers

C. Incident response team members

D. Internal auditors

2. You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?

A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.

B. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.

C. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.

D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

3. Which of the following aspect of monitoring tool ensures that the monitoring tool has the ability to keep up with the growth of an enterprise?

A. Scalability

B. Customizability

C. Sustainability

D. Impact on performance

4. Which of the following is the MOST important use of KRIs?

A. Providing an early warning signal

B. Providing a backward-looking view on risk events that have occurred

C. Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

D. Providing an indication of the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance

5. What are the requirements for creating risk scenarios? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

A. Determination of cause and effect

B. Determination of the value of an asset

C. Determination of the value of business process at risk

D. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss

6. Which of the following role carriers will decide the Key Risk Indicator of the enterprise? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

A. Senior management

B. Business leaders

C. Chief financial officer

D. Human resource

7. You are the project manager of GHT project. Your project team is in the process of identifying project risks on your current project. The team has the option to use all of the following tools and techniques to diagram some of these potential risks EXCEPT for which one?

A. Ishikawa diagram

B. Influence diagram

C. Decision tree diagram

D. Process flowchart

8. What is the PRIMARY need for effectively assessing controls?

A. Control's operating effectiveness

B. Control's objective achievement

C. Control's alignment with operating environment

D. Control's design effectiveness

9. You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?

A. Low risk

B. Extremely high risk

C. High risk

D. Moderate risk

10. You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants to know why you have scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk identification sessions?

A. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed the project and which did not happen.

B. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes throughout the project phases.

C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during project execution.

D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.

11. Courtney is the project manager for her organization. She is working with the project team to complete the qualitative risk analysis for her project. During the analysis Courtney encourages the project team to begin the grouping of identified risks by common causes. What is the primary advantage to group risks by common causes during qualitative risk analysis?

A. It assist in developing effective risk responses.

B. It helps the project team realize the areas of the project most laden with risks.

C. It saves time by collecting the related resources, such as project team members, to analyze the risk events.

D. It can lead to the creation of risk categories unique to each project.

12.Which of the following components of risk scenarios has the potential to generate internal or external threat on an enterprise?

A. Assets

B. Events

C. Actors

D. Timing dimension

13. What is the process for selecting and implementing measures to impact risk called?

A. Control

B. Risk Treatment

C. Risk Management

D. Risk Assessment

14. You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority Number (RPN) you would give to it?

A. 120

B. 15

C. 100

D. 30

15. Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

B. Risk reports need to be timely

C. Complex metrics require fine-tuning

D. In order to avoid risk

16. Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "It is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions."

A. Risk response planning

B. Risk governance

C. Risk identification

D. Risk communication

17. Which of the following is NOT true for risk management capability maturity level 1?

A. Risk management skills exist on an ad hoc basis, but are not actively developed

B. Decisions involving risk lack credible information

C. There is an understanding that risk is important and needs to be managed, but it is viewed asa technical issue and the business primarily considers the downside of IT risk

D. Risk appetite and tolerance are applied only during episodic risk assessments

18. You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project's monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.

B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.

C. Include the responses in the project management plan.

D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register already.

19. Which of the following controls is an example of non-technical controls?

A. Access control

B. Intrusion detection system

C. Physical security

D. Encryption

20. Which of the following is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of unwanted occurrences in a system?

A. Cause and effect analysis

B. Fault tree analysis

C. Scenario analysis

D. Sensitivity analysis

21. You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?

A. Communications Management Plan

B. Risk Management Plan

C. Resource Management Plan

D. Stakeholder management strategy

22. Which section of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act specifies "Periodic financial reports must be certified by CEO and CFO"?

A. Section 302

B. Section 404

C. Section 203

D. Section 409

23. You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decide, with your stakeholders' approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project, what is likely to increase?

A. Costs

B. Risks

C. Quality control concerns

D. Human resource needs

24. Which of the following BEST describes the utility of a risk?

A. The finance incentive behind the risk

B. The mechanics of how a risk works

C. The usefulness of the risk to individuals or groups

D. The potential opportunity of the risk

25. You are an experienced Project Manager that has been entrusted with a project to develop a machine which produces auto components. You have scheduled meetings with the project team and the key stakeholders to identify the risks for your project. Which of the following is a key output of this process?

A. Risk Register

B. Risk Management Plan

C. Risk Categories

D. Risk Breakdown Structure

26. David is the project manager of the HRC Project. He has identified a risk in the project, which could cause the delay in the project. David does not want this risk event to happen so he takes few actions to ensure that the risk event will not happen. These extra steps, however, cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response has David adopted?

A. Avoidance

B. Mitigation

C. Acceptance

D. Transfer

27. Which of the following are the principles of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Confidentiality

B. Availability

C. Reliability

D. Integrity

28. Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?

A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected

B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations

C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans

D. Safeguarding assets

29. You are the project manager of GHT project. You have selected appropriate Key Risk Indicators for your project. Now, you need to maintain those Key Risk Indicators. What is the MOST important reason to maintain Key Risk Indicators?

A. Risk reports need to be timely

B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning

C. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

D. They help to avoid risk

30. Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy?

A. Business Continuity Strategy

B. Index of Disaster-Relevant Information

C. Disaster Invocation Guideline

D. Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule

31. Which of the following controls do NOT come under technical class of control?

A. Program management control

B. System and Communications Protection control

C. Identification and Authentication control

D. Access Control

32. For which of the following risk management capability maturity levels do the statement given below is true? "Real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions exists, as does automation of policy management"

A. Level 3

B. Level 0

C. Level 5

D. Level 2

33. Mary is a project manager in her organization. On her current project she is working with her project team and other key stakeholders to identify the risks within the project. She is currently aiming to create a comprehensive list of project risks so she is using a facilitator to help generate ideas about project risks. What risk identification method is Mary likely using?

A. Delphi Techniques

B. Expert judgment

C. Brainstorming

D. Checklist analysis

34. Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project

B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)

C. It is used to measure performance of schedule

D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project

35. Which of the following is an administrative control?

A. Water detection

B. Reasonableness check

C. Data loss prevention program

D. Session timeout

36. Which of the following do NOT indirect information?

A. Information about the propriety of cutoff

B. Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.

C. Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.

D. The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.

37. You are the project manager of the NHH Project. You are working with the project team to create aplan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team. What document do you and your team is creating in this scenario?

A. Project plan

B. Resource management plan

C. Project management plan

D. Risk management plan

38. Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?

A. Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).

B. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their level or concern ("interest") regarding the project outcomes.

C. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement ("influence") in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project's planning or execution ("impact").

D. Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their active involvement ("influence") in the project.

39. Where are all risks and risk responses documented as the project progresses?

A. Risk management plan

B. Project management plan

C. Risk response plan

D. Risk register

40. Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?

A. Identification of assets

B. Identification of threats

C. Identification of threat sources

D. Identification of vulnerabilities

41. A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?

A. Transference

B. Mitigation

C. Avoidance

D. Exploit

42. Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?

A. Risk indicator matrix

B. Impact matrix

C. Risk scenario matrix

D. Probability matrix

43. John works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following inputs of the identify risks process is useful in identifying risks associated to the time allowances for the activities or projects as a whole, with a width of the range indicating the degrees of risk?

A. Activity duration estimates

B. Activity cost estimates

C. Risk management plan

D. Schedule management plan

44. What are the two MAJOR factors to be considered while deciding risk appetite level? Each correctanswer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

A. The amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept

B. Alignment with risk-culture

C. Risk-aware decisions

D. The capacity of the enterprise's objective to absorb loss.

45. Which of the following events refer to loss of integrity? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Someone sees company's secret formula

B. Someone makes unauthorized changes to a Web site

C. An e-mail message is modified in transit

D. A virus infects a file

46. You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?

A. Risk planning

B. Risk monitoring and controlling

C. Risk identification

D. Risk analysis

47. Which of the following should be PRIMARILY considered while designing information systems controls?

A. The IT strategic plan

B. The existing IT environment

C. The organizational strategic plan

D. The present IT budget

48. You are the project manager of the HGT project in Bluewell Inc. The project has an asset valued at $125,000 and is subjected to an exposure factor of 25 percent. What will be the Single Loss Expectancy of this project?

A. $ 125,025

B. $ 31,250

C. $ 5,000

D. $ 3,125,000

49. Which of the following is the MOST effective inhibitor of relevant and efficient communication?

A. A false sense of confidence at the top on the degree of actual exposure related to IT and lack of a well-understood direction for risk management from the top down

B. The perception that the enterprise is trying to cover up known risk from stakeholders

C. Existence of a blame culture

D. Misalignment between real risk appetite and translation into policies

50. You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won't affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?

A. These risks can be dismissed.

B. These risks can be accepted.

C. These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.

D. All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.

FAQs

1. What is ISACA CRISC certification?

CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) is a globally recognized certification by ISACA that validates expertise in IT risk management and control.

2. Who should take the CRISC certification?

It is ideal for IT professionals, risk managers, compliance officers, and those involved in managing enterprise risk and information systems controls.

3. Is CRISC worth it for IT risk professionals?

Yes, CRISC boosts credibility, enhances your skill set, and can significantly improve job opportunities in risk-related roles.

4. What are the benefits of getting CRISC certified?

Benefits include global recognition, career advancement, higher earning potential, and credibility in IT risk management.

5. What is the eligibility for CRISC certification?

You need three years of cumulative work experience in at least two of the four CRISC domains.

6. How many years of experience are required for CRISC?

A minimum of three years’ experience in risk management and control-related roles is required to earn the certification.

7. Can I take the CRISC exam without experience?

Yes, you can take the exam, but you must fulfill the experience requirement within five years of passing it.

8. What topics are covered in the CRISC exam?

The four domains are:

1. Governance,

2. IT Risk Assessment,

3. Risk Response and Reporting,

4. Information Technology and Security.

9. How many questions are on the CRISC exam?

There are 150 multiple-choice questions in the exam.

10. What is the passing score for the CRISC certification?

You need a scaled score of 450 or higher out of 800 to pass.

11. Is the CRISC exam difficult to pass?

It can be challenging, but thorough preparation and understanding of the domains can help you pass on the first attempt.

12. How do I prepare for the CRISC exam?

Study ISACA’s official review manual and use CertiMaan’s updated CRISC practice dumps and mock exams for focused preparation.

13. Where can I find real CRISC exam dumps or practice tests?

You can access authentic and up-to-date practice tests from CertiMaan.

14. How long should I study for the CRISC exam?

Typically, 6 to 10 weeks of dedicated preparation is sufficient, depending on your background.

15. Does CertiMaan offer updated CRISC practice questions?

Yes, CertiMaan offers regularly updated CRISC dumps and full-length mock exams aligned with the latest exam blueprint.

16. How much does the CRISC exam cost?

The exam fee is $575 for ISACA members and $760 for non-members.

17. How do I register for the CRISC exam?

You can register directly through the official ISACA website.

18. What jobs can I get with CRISC certification?

You can pursue roles like IT Risk Manager, Risk Analyst, Governance Consultant, Information Security Officer, and Compliance Manager.

19. What is the average salary after CRISC certification?

Certified professionals often earn between $100,000 and $140,000 USD annually, depending on location and experience.

20. Is CRISC better than CISM for risk management roles?

Yes, CRISC is more specialized for IT risk and control, whereas CISM is broader and focuses on information security management.