CompTIA CySA+ Sample Questions for CS0-003 Exam Success

Prepare for the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) CS0-003 exam with this curated set of sample questions and practice tests. These CompTIA CySA+ Sample Questions are structured to reflect real-world scenarios in threat detection, incident response, security architecture, and vulnerability management. Ideal for cybersecurity professionals, analysts, and SOC team members, this resource includes CS0-003 mock exams, performance-based tasks, and detailed answer explanations. Whether you're exploring free CySA+ practice exams or looking for reliable dumps and test simulations, these tools will help strengthen your practical skills and exam readiness. Master the CySA+ certification with confidence using up-to-date, exam-relevant materials tailored for 2026 success.

CompTIA CySA+ Sample Questions List :

1. An SQL database is no longer accessible online due to a recent security breach. An investigation reveals that unauthorized access to the database was possible due to an SQL injection vulnerability. To prevent this type of breach in the future, which of the following security controls should be put in place before bringing the database back online? (Choose two.)

1. Secure storage policies

2. Browser security updates

3. Input validation

4. Web application firewall

5. Secure coding standards

6. Database activity monitoring

2. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an organization wants to develop custom IDS rulesets faster, prior to new rules being released by IDS vendors. Which of the following BEST meets this objective?

1. Identify a third-party source for IDS rules and change the configuration on the applicable IDSs to pull in the new rulesets

2. Encourage cybersecurity analysts to review open-source intelligence products and threat database to generate new IDS rules based on those sources

3. Leverage the latest TCP- and UDP-related RFCs to arm sensors and IDSs with appropriate heuristics for anomaly detection

4. Use annual hacking conventions to document the latest attacks and threats, and then develop IDS rules to counter those threats

3. A company has entered into a business agreement with a business partner for managed human resources services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to provide documentation that is required to set up a business-to-business VPN between the two organizations. Which of the following is required in this scenario?

1. ISA

2. BIA

3. SLA

4. RA

4. An engineer is assisting with the design of a new virtualized environment that will house critical company services and reduce the datacenter's physical footprint. The company has expressed concern about the integrity of operating systems and wants to ensure a vulnerability exploited in one datacenter segment would not lead to the compromise of all others. Which of the following design objectives should the engineer complete to BEST mitigate the company's concerns? (Choose two.)

1. Deploy virtual desktop infrastructure with an OOB management network

2. Employ the use of vTPM with boot attestation

3. Leverage separate physical hardware for sensitive services and data

4. Use a community CSP with independently managed security services

5. A penetration tester has been contracted to conduct a physical assessment of a site. Which of the following is the MOST plausible method of social engineering to be conducted during this engagement?

1. Randomly calling customer employees and posing as a help desk technician requiring user password to resolve issues

2. Posing as a copier service technician and indicating the equipment had "œphoned home" to alert the technician for a service call

3. Simulating an illness while at a client location for a sales call and then recovering once listening devices are installed

4. Obtaining fake government credentials and impersonating law enforcement to gain access to a company facility

6. Following a security assessment, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing the results of the assessment and evaluating potential risk treatment strategies. As part of the CISO's evaluation, a judgment of potential impact based on the identified risk is performed. To prioritize response actions, the CISO uses past experience to take into account the exposure factor as well as the external accessibility of the weakness identified. Which of the following is the CISO performing?

1. Documentation of lessons learned

2. Quantitative risk assessment

3. Qualitative assessment of risk

4. Business impact scoring

7. Two new technical SMB security settings have been enforced and have also become policies that increase secure communications. Network Client: Digitally sign communication Network Server: Digitally sign communication A storage administrator in a remote location with a legacy storage array, which contains time-sensitive data, reports employees can no longer connect to their department shares. Which of the following mitigation strategies should an information security manager recommend to the data owner?

1. Accept the risk, reverse the settings for the remote location, and have the remote location file a risk exception until the legacy storage device can be upgraded

2. Accept the risk for the remote location, and reverse the settings indefinitely since the legacy storage device will not be upgraded

3. Mitigate the risk for the remote location by suggesting a move to a cloud service provider. Have the remote location request an indefinite risk exception for the use of cloud storage

4. Avoid the risk, leave the settings alone, and decommission the legacy storage device

8. A Chief Information Officer (CIO) publicly announces the implementation of a new financial system. As part of a security assessment that includes a social engineering task, which of the following tasks should be conducted to demonstrate the BEST means to gain information to use for a report on social vulnerability details about the financial system?

1. Call the CIO and ask for an interview, posing as a job seeker interested in an open position

2. Compromise the email server to obtain a list of attendees who responded to the invitation who is on the IT staff

3. Notify the CIO that, through observation at events, malicious actors can identify individuals to befriend

4. Understand the CIO is a social drinker, and find the means to befriend the CIO at establishments the CIO frequents

9. During a security assessment, an organization is advised of inadequate control over network segmentation. The assessor explains that the organization's reliance on VLANs to segment traffic is insufficient to provide segmentation based on regulatory standards. Which of the following should the organization consider implementing along with VLANs to provide a greater level of segmentation?

1. Air gaps

2. Access control lists

3. Spanning tree protocol

4. Network virtualization

10. A recent assessment identified that several users' mobile devices are running outdated versions of endpoint security software that do not meet the company's security policy. Which of the following should be performed to ensure the users can access the network and meet the company's security requirements?

1. Vulnerability assessment

2. Risk assessment

3. Patch management

4. Device quarantine

11. An organization has employed the services of an auditing firm to perform a gap assessment in preparation for an upcoming audit. As part of the gap assessment, the auditor supporting the assessment recommends the organization engage with other industry partners to share information about emerging attacks to organizations in the industry in which the organization functions. Which of the following types of information could be drawn from such participation?

1. Threat modeling

2. Risk assessment

3. Vulnerability data

4. Exploit frameworks

12. A systems administrator at a medical imaging company discovers protected health information (PHI) on a general purpose file server. Which of the following steps should the administrator take NEXT?

1. Isolate all of the PHI on its own VLAN and keep it segregated at Layer 2

2. Immediately encrypt all PHI with AES 256

3. Delete all PHI from the network until the legal department is consulted

4. Consult the legal department to determine legal requirements

13. A recent penetration test identified that a web server has a major vulnerability. The web server hosts a critical shipping application for the company and requires 99.99% availability. Attempts to fix the vulnerability would likely break the application. The shipping application is due to be replaced in the next three months. Which of the following would BEST secure the web server until the replacement web server is ready?

1. Patch management

2. Antivirus

3. Application firewall

4. HIDS

14. A financial consulting firm recently recovered from some damaging incidents that were associated with malware installed via rootkit. Post-incident analysis is ongoing, and the incident responders and systems administrators are working to determine a strategy to reduce the risk of recurrence. The firm's systems are running modern operating systems and feature UEFI and TPMs. Which of the following technical options would provide the MOST preventive value?

1. Update and deploy GPOs

2. Configure and use measured boot

3. Strengthen the password complexity requirements

4. Update the antivirus software and definitions

15. To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be exploited so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions. Which of the following approaches is described?

1. Blue team

2. Red team

3. Black box

4. White team

16. A company monitors the performance of all web servers using WMI. A network administrator informs the security engineer that web servers hosting the company's client-facing portal are running slowly today. After some investigation, the security engineer notices a large number of attempts at enumerating host information via SNMP from multiple IP addresses. Which of the following would be the BEST technique for the security engineer to employ in an attempt to prevent reconnaissance activity?

1. Install a HIPS on the web servers

2. Disable inbound traffic from offending sources

3. Disable SNMP on the web servers

4. Install anti-DDoS protection in the DMZ

17. A security incident responder discovers an attacker has gained access to a network and has overwritten key system files with backdoor software. The server was reimaged and patched offline. Which of the following tools should be implemented to detect similar attacks?

1. Vulnerability scanner

2. TPM

3. Host-based firewall

4. File integrity monitor

18. The risk subcommittee of a corporate board typically maintains a master register of the most prominent risks to the company. A centralized holistic view of risk is particularly important to the corporate Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because:

1. IT systems are maintained in silos to minimize interconnected risks and provide clear risk boundaries used to implement compensating controls

2. risks introduced by a system in one business unit can affect other business units in ways in which the individual business units have no awareness

3. corporate general counsel requires a single system boundary to determine overall corporate risk exposure

4. major risks identified by the subcommittee merit the prioritized allocation of scare funding to address cybersecurity concerns

19. A company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a thorough review of all aspects of corporate security. The company is particularly concerned about unauthorized access to its physical offices resulting in network compromises. Which of the following should the consultant recommend be performed to evaluate potential risks?

1. The consultant should attempt to gain access to physical offices through social engineering and then attempt data exfiltration

2. The consultant should be granted access to all physical access control systems to review logs and evaluate the likelihood of the threat

3. The company should conduct internal audits of access logs and employee social media feeds to identify potential insider threats

4. The company should install a temporary CCTV system to detect unauthorized access to physical offices

20. Management is reviewing the results of a recent risk assessment of the organization's policies and procedures. During the risk assessment it is determined that procedures associated with background checks have not been effectively implemented. In response to this risk, the organization elects to revise policies and procedures related to background checks and use a third-party to perform background checks on all new employees. Which of the following risk management strategies has the organization employed?

1. Transfer

2. Mitigate

3. Accept

4. Avoid

21. A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a security team member to look into the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?

1. The OS version is not compatible

2. The OEM is prohibited

3. The device does not support FDE

4. The device is rooted

22. An organization is preparing to develop a business continuity plan. The organization is required to meet regulatory requirements relating to confidentiality and availability, which are well-defined. Management has expressed concern following initial meetings that the organization is not fully aware of the requirements associated with the regulations. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for the project manager to solicit additional resources for during this phase of the project?

1. After-action reports

2. Gap assessment

3. Security requirements traceability matrix

4. Business impact assessment

23. A SaaS-based email service provider often receives reports from legitimate customers that their IP netblocks are on blacklists and they cannot send email. The SaaS has confirmed that affected customers typically have IP addresses within broader network ranges and some abusive customers within the same IP ranges may have performed spam campaigns. Which of the following actions should the SaaS provider perform to minimize legitimate customer impact?

1. Inform the customer that the service provider does not have any control over third-party blacklist entries. The customer should reach out to the blacklist operator directly

2. Perform a takedown of any customer accounts that have entries on email blacklists because this is a strong indicator of hostile behavior

3. Work with the legal department and threaten legal action against the blacklist operator if the netblocks are not removed because this is affecting legitimate traffic

4. Establish relationship with a blacklist operators so broad entries can be replaced with more granular entries and incorrect entries can be quickly pruned

24. A security engineer is designing a system in which offshore, outsourced staff can push code from the development environment to the production environment securely. The security engineer is concerned with data loss, while the business does not want to slow down its development process. Which of the following solutions BEST balances security requirements with business need?

1. Set up a VDI environment that prevents copying and pasting to the local workstations of outsourced staff members

2. Install a client-side VPN on the staff laptops and limit access to the development network

3. Create an IPSec VPN tunnel from the development network to the office of the outsourced staff

4. Use online collaboration tools to initiate workstation-sharing sessions with local staff who have access to the development network

25. A systems security engineer is assisting an organization's market survey team in reviewing requirements for an upcoming acquisition of mobile devices. The engineer expresses concerns to the survey team about a particular class of devices that uses a separate SoC for baseband radio I/O. For which of the following reasons is the engineer concerned?

1. These devices can communicate over networks older than HSPA+ and LTE standards, exposing device communications to poor encryptions routines

2. The organization will be unable to restrict the use of NFC, electromagnetic induction, and Bluetooth technologies

3. The associated firmware is more likely to remain out of date and potentially vulnerable

4. The manufacturers of the baseband radios are unable to enforce mandatory access controls within their driver set

26. An agency has implemented a data retention policy that requires tagging data according to type before storing it in the data repository. The policy requires all business emails be automatically deleted after two years. During an open records investigation, information was found on an employee's work computer concerning a conversation that occurred three years prior and proved damaging to the agency's reputation. Which of the following MOST likely caused the data leak?

1. The employee manually changed the email client retention settings to prevent deletion of emails

2. The file that contained the damaging information was mistagged and retained on the server for longer than it should have been

3. The email was encrypted and an exception was put in place via the data classification application

4. The employee saved a file on the computer's hard drive that contained archives of emails, which were more than two years old

27. A team is at the beginning stages of designing a new enterprise-wide application. The new application will have a large database and require a capital investment in hardware. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has directed the team to save money and reduce the reliance on the datacenter, and the vendor must specialize in hosting large databases in the cloud. Which of the following cloud-hosting options would BEST meet these needs?

1. Multi-tenancy SaaS

2. Hybrid IaaS

3. Single-tenancy PaaS

4. Community IaaS

28. A forensics analyst suspects that a breach has occurred. Security logs show the company's OS patch system may be compromised, and it is serving patches that contain a zero-day exploit and backdoor. The analyst extracts an executable file from a packet capture of communication between a client computer and the patch server. Which of the following should the analyst use to confirm this suspicion?

1. File size

2. Digital signature

3. Checksums

4. Anti-malware software

29. A company contracts a security engineer to perform a penetration test of its client-facing web portal. Which of the following activities would be MOST appropriate?

1. Use a protocol analyzer against the site to see if data input can be replayed from the browser

2. Scan the website through an interception proxy and identify areas for the code injection

3. Scan the site with a port scanner to identify vulnerable services running on the web server

4. Use network enumeration tools to identify if the server is running behind a load balancer

30. A security architect is implementing security measures in response to an external audit that found vulnerabilities in the corporate collaboration tool suite. The report identified the lack of any mechanism to provide confidentiality for electronic correspondence between users and between users and group mailboxes. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the identified vulnerability?

1. Issue digital certificates to all users, including owners of group mailboxes, and require S/MIME with AES-256.

2. Federate with an existing PKI provider, and reject all non-signed emails

3. Implement two-factor email authentication, and require users to hash all email messages upon receipt

4. Provide digital certificates to all systems, and eliminate the user group or shared mailboxes

31. An organization is currently working with a client to migrate data between a legacy ERP system and a cloud-based ERP tool using a global PaaS provider. As part of the engagement, the organization is performing data deduplication and sanitization of client data to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the need to sanitize the client data?

1. Data aggregation

2. Data sovereignty

3. Data isolation

4. Data volume

32. Which of the following BEST represents a risk associated with merging two enterprises during an acquisition?

1. The consolidation of two different IT enterprises increases the likelihood of the data loss because there are now two backup systems

2. Integrating two different IT systems might result in a successful data breach if threat intelligence is not shared between the two enterprises

3. Merging two enterprise networks could result in an expanded attack surface and could cause outages if trust and permission issues are not handled carefully

4. Expanding the set of data owners requires an in-depth review of all data classification decisions, impacting availability during the review

33. A software development manager is running a project using agile development methods. The company cybersecurity engineer has noticed a high number of vulnerabilities have been making it into production code on the project. Which of the following methods could be used in addition to an integrated development environment to reduce the severity of the issue?

1. Conduct a penetration test on each function as it is developed

2. Develop a set of basic checks for common coding errors

3. Adopt a waterfall method of software development

4. Implement unit tests that incorporate static code analyzers

34. Two competing companies experienced similar attacks on their networks from various threat actors. To improve response times, the companies wish to share some threat intelligence about the sources and methods of attack. Which of the following business documents would be BEST to document this engagement?

1. Business partnership agreement

2. Memorandum of understanding

3. Service-level agreement

4. Interconnection security agreement

35. A company's existing forward proxies support software-based TLS decryption, but are currently at 60% load just dealing with AV scanning and content analysis for HTTP traffic. More than 70% outbound web traffic is currently encrypted. The switching and routing network infrastructure precludes adding capacity, preventing the installation of a dedicated TLS decryption system. The network firewall infrastructure is currently at 30% load and has software decryption modules that can be activated by purchasing additional license keys. An existing project is rolling out agent updates to end-user desktops as part of an endpoint security refresh. Which of the following is the BEST way to address these issues and mitigate risks to the organization?

1. Purchase the SSL, decryption license for the firewalls and route traffic back to the proxies for end-user categorization and malware analysis.

2. Roll out application whitelisting to end-user desktops and decommission the existing proxies, freeing up network ports.

3. Use an EDP solution to address the malware issue and accept the diminishing role of the proxy for URL categorization in the short team.

4. Accept the current risk and seek possible funding approval in the next budget cycle to replace the existing proxies with ones with more capacity.

36. A company is developing requirements for a customized OS build that will be used in an embedded environment. The company procured hardware that is capable of reducing the likelihood of successful buffer overruns while executables are processing. Which of the following capabilities must be included for the OS to take advantage of this critical hardware-based countermeasure?

1. Application whitelisting

2. NX/XN bit

3. ASLR

4. TrustZone

37. A recent CRM upgrade at a branch office was completed after the desired deadline. Several technical issues were found during the upgrade and need to be discussed in depth before the next branch office is upgraded. Which of the following should be used to identify weak processes and other vulnerabilities?

1. Gap analysis

2. Benchmarks and baseline results

3. Risk assessment

4. Lessons learned report

38. A software development team has spent the last 18 months developing a new web-based front-end that will allow clients to check the status of their orders as they proceed through manufacturing. The marketing team schedules a launch party to present the new application to the client base in two weeks. Before the launch, the security team discovers numerous flaws that may introduce dangerous vulnerabilities, allowing direct access to a database used by manufacturing. The development team did not plan to remediate these vulnerabilities during development. Which of the following SDLC best practices should the development team have followed?

1. Implementing regression testing

2. Completing user acceptance testing

3. Verifying system design documentation

4. Using a SRTM

39. A network engineer is attempting to design-in resiliency characteristics for an enterprise network's VPN services. If the engineer wants to help ensure some resilience against zero-day vulnerabilities exploited against the VPN implementation, which of the following decisions would BEST support this objective?

1. Implement a reverse proxy for VPN traffic that is defended and monitored by the organization's SOC with near-real-time alerting to administrators.

2. Subscribe to a managed service provider capable of supporting the mitigation of advanced DDoS attacks on the enterprise's pool of VPN concentrators.

3. Distribute the VPN concentrators across multiple systems at different physical sites to ensure some backup services are available in the event of primary site loss.

4. Employ a second VPN layer concurrently where the other layer's cryptographic implementation is sourced from a different vendor.

40. Legal authorities notify a company that its network has been compromised for the second time in two years. The investigation shows the attackers were able to use the same vulnerability on different systems in both attacks. Which of the following would have allowed the security team to use historical information to protect against the second attack?

1. Key risk indicators

2. Lessons learned

3. Recovery point objectives

4. Tabletop exercise

41. A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO is reviewing and revising system configuration and hardening guides that were developed internally and have been used several years to secure the organization's systems. The CISO knows improvements can be made to the guides. Which of the following would be the BEST source of reference during the revision process?

1. CVE database

2. Internal security assessment reports

3. Industry-accepted standards

4. External vulnerability scan reports

42. A web developer has implemented HTML5 optimizations into a legacy web application. One of the modifications the web developer made was the following client side optimization: localStorage.setItem("œsession-cookie", document.cookie); Which of the following should the security engineer recommend?

1. SessionStorage should be used so authorized cookies expire after the session ends

2. Cookies should be marked as "œsecure" and "œHttpOnly"

3. Cookies should be scoped to a relevant domain/path

4. Client-side cookies should be replaced by server-side mechanisms

43. Legal counsel has notified the information security manager of a legal matter that will require the preservation of electronic records for 2000 sales force employees. Source records will be email, PC, network shares, and applications. After all restrictions have been lifted, which of the following should the information manager review?

1. Data retention policy

2. Legal hold

3. Chain of custody

4. Scope statement

44. A hospital's security team recently determined its network was breached and patient data was accessed by an external entity. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the hospital approaches the executive management team with this information, reports the vulnerability that led to the breach has already been remediated, and explains the team is continuing to follow the appropriate incident response plan. The executive team is concerned about the hospital's brand reputation and asks the CISO when the incident should be disclosed to the affected patients. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response?

1. When it is mandated by their legal and regulatory requirements

2. As soon as possible in the interest of the patients

3. As soon as the public relations department is ready to be interviewed

4. When all steps related to the incident response plan are completed

45. A consultant is hired to perform a passive vulnerability assessment of a company to determine what information might be collected about the company and its employees. The assessment will be considered successful if the consultant can discover the name of one of the IT administrators. Which of the following is MOST likely to produce the needed information?

1. Whois

2. DNS enumeration

3. Vulnerability scanner

4. Fingerprinting

46. A deployment manager is working with a software development group to assess the security of a new version of the organization's internally developed ERP tool. The organization prefers to not perform assessment activities following deployment, instead focusing on assessing security throughout the life cycle. Which of the following methods would BEST assess the security of the product?

1. Static code analysis in the IDE environment

2. Penetration testing of the UAT environment

3. Vulnerability scanning of the production environment

4. Penetration testing of the production environment

47. A breach was caused by an insider threat in which customer PII was compromised. Following the breach, a lead security analyst is asked to determine which vulnerabilities the attacker used to access company resources. Which of the following should the analyst use to remediate the vulnerabilities?

1. Protocol analyzer

2. Root cause analyzer

3. Behavioral analytics

4. Data leak prevention

48. During a security event investigation, a junior analyst fails to create an image of a server's hard drive before removing the drive and sending it to the forensics analyst. Later, the evidence from the analysis is not usable in the prosecution of the attackers due to the uncertainty of tampering. Which of the following should the junior analyst have followed?

1. Continuity of operations

2. Chain of custody

3. Order of volatility

4. Data recovery

49. A security analyst has requested network engineers integrate sFlow into the SOC's overall monitoring picture. For this to be a useful addition to the monitoring capabilities, which of the following must be considered by the engineering team?

1. Effective deployment of network taps

2. Overall bandwidth available at Internet PoP

3. Optimal placement of log aggregators

4. Availability of application layer visualizers

50. A security engineer is embedded with a development team to ensure security is built into products being developed. The security engineer wants to ensure developers are not blocked by a large number of security requirements applied at specific schedule points. Which of the following solutions BEST meets the engineer's goal?

1. Schedule weekly reviews of al unit test results with the entire development team and follow up between meetings with surprise code inspections.

2. Develop and implement a set of automated security tests to be installed on each development team leader's workstation.

3. Enforce code quality and reuse standards into the requirements definition phase of the waterfall development process.

4. Deploy an integrated software tool that builds and tests each portion of code committed by developers and provides feedback.

FAQs

1. What is the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certification exam?

It is a globally recognized certification that validates cybersecurity skills in detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats across enterprise environments.

2. How do I become CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certified?

You need to register for and pass the CS0-003 exam, which tests your ability to apply behavioral analytics and threat detection techniques.

3. What are the prerequisites for the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam?

There are no mandatory prerequisites, but CompTIA recommends Network+ and Security+ certifications or equivalent hands-on experience in cybersecurity.

4. How much does the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certification cost?

The exam costs $392 USD, though prices may vary based on region.

5. How many questions are in the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam?

The exam consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions.

6. What topics are covered in the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam?

It covers threat management, vulnerability management, security architecture, incident response, and compliance.

7. How difficult is the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certification exam?

It’s considered intermediate-level, requiring both technical knowledge and hands-on cybersecurity experience.

8. How long does it take to prepare for the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam?

Most candidates prepare for 10–12 weeks, depending on their cybersecurity background and study schedule.

9. What jobs can I get after earning the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certification?

You can work as a Security Analyst, Incident Response Specialist, Threat Hunter, or SOC Analyst.

10. How much salary can I earn with a CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 certification?

Professionals with this certification typically earn between $80,000–$110,000 annually, depending on experience and job role.